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  1. #11
    Survey Master
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    maybe im wrong here but this seems like you owe these guys money s810. dk had 4% meaning he would have gotten his 20% back and 4% of the profit right? if buyin is 215$ and min cash was 450$ thats 235$ profit. 4% of that is 9.40. idk seems like youre wrong here

  2. #12
    PokerOwned Demi-God s810car's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by tommy62278 View Post
    maybe im wrong here but this seems like you owe these guys money s810. dk had 4% meaning he would have gotten his 20% back and 4% of the profit right? if buyin is 215$ and min cash was 450$ thats 235$ profit. 4% of that is 9.40. idk seems like youre wrong here
    Ok what you're thinking of is how a stake works, with stakeback, etc. This was buying a piece of the action, namely 1% of total cashed for $5, what i figured this at was $215, $2.15 would be 1% of buyin or in a horse/staker sit, 1/2% of the cash, so to make it an even number, doubled so $4.30 (with a 1.15 markup) so $5 for 1%.

    Due to the last minute setup, I didn't go over the extra details such as makeup offering (i prefer EITHER makeup OR stakeback, not both, just the same as I offer my horses, I usually require stakeback but dont expect makeup, since I didn't go over that i was going to auto offer makeup as that is more valuable to the investor)

    So to reiterate, given I was buying in myself and selling shares of my action, they technically weren't paying into the buyin (kind of like betting on a horse, you get the payout winning, not winning + initial buyin). This is typically how I would sell a share of action of games I'm buying into anyways. Now if it was staked or the investors were paying into a BAP (buy a piece) bankroll, I would most definitely have more options, including stakeback.

    Any other questions on the math or why I did it this way please respond, like i said it was just a quicky, not representative of how I run stakes
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  3. #13
    PokerOwned Demi-God s810car's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by WECpoker View Post
    uh, this needs to be adjusted to a more fair return. There is no stake I have seen in my life where a cash resulted in a loss of funds. At $5 per %, you would be generating $500 for a $200 MTT. I am sure that is just a mistake on your part as you are experienced in this area. No doubt you thought it up quick and just put in the wrong numbers No one is getting a 150% Mark Up in any stake even if they are Phil Ivey.

    Now, they did agree to the terms, but to be fair, you should really make this a more realistic share of your 'cash' and pay out some money due to the misunderstanding.

    Edit: A normal Professional Mark Up is 1.2 which equals $240 total at 100%
    ya know given i quick posted everything, tbh ill relook at this after im done in my games, prolly over thought it lol

    edit - however if you think about it they are supposed to be at 50/50 of cash line, so it isnt too far off, I quoted it at 1% technically if I sold more then the buyin, up to 100%, id make nothing in the game, the way i posted it i could ONLY sell 43% max
    Last edited by s810car; 03-13-2014 at 12:07 AM.
    Always Remember Your Roots



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  4. #14
    PokerOwned Veteran belit2day's Avatar
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    either way terms were set and agreed to. But washing it works too just do to the confusion. Nice run get a little deeper next time

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