what are the odds of flopping a flush if you have suited cards?

[SurfPoker]

what are the odds of flopping a flush if you have suited cards?

[joefine]

what are the odds of flopping a flush if you have suited cards?

the odds are 118 to 1.

[eqgh5uea]

This is a simple question.

If you're into playing here for a while I'll tell you, but if not, then you should stick with 'playing the player.'

Add the percentages together.

14 /52 = 26%

2/50 = 4%

12/50 = 24%

9/47 = 19%

17% of the time if you're the only person playing.

[madjek]

This is a simple question.

If you're into playing here for a while I'll tell you, but if not, then you should stick with 'playing the player.'

Add the percentages together.

14 /52 = 26%

2/50 = 4%

12/50 = 24%

9/47 = 19%

17% of the time if you're the only person playing.

What?? lol

The math is simple, to get the answers that were given, you just have to figure odds of getting that suited card you need for all three cards on flop. To get the first one odds are : the 11 suited cards left over 50 total cards left or 11/50, for the 2nd flopped card odds are 10 needed suited cards left over 49 or 10/49 and for the third, same pattern, 9/48. So odds of all 3 happening is 11/50 X 10/49 X 9/48 = 990/117600 which comes to 1/118.78, which is how they come up with 1 in 118 actually closer to 1 in 119.

[eqgh5uea]

What?? lol

The math is simple, to get the answers that were given, you just have to figure odds of getting that suited card you need for all three cards on flop. To get the first one odds are : the 11 suited cards left over 50 total cards left or 11/50, for the 2nd flopped card odds are 10 needed suited cards left over 49 or 10/49 and for the third, same pattern, 9/48. So odds of all 3 happening is 11/50 X 10/49 X 9/48 = 990/117600 which comes to 1/118.78, which is how they come up with 1 in 118 actually closer to 1 in 119.

How about these numbers!?!?!

0.008/0.01 = 1/118 while 0.1825 = the same besides multiplying.

[madjek]

How about these numbers!?!?!

0.008/0.01 = 1/118 while 0.1825 = the same besides multiplying.

Again .... WHAT!!????

First, where did .008 and .01 come from

and

Second, .008/.01 = .8

but, don't really know the pt of this thread, what does it matter

[eqgh5uea]

Again .... WHAT!!????

First, where did .008 and .01 come from

and

Second, .008/.01 = .8

but, don't really know the pt of this thread, what does it matter

I'm just being an idiot. Does multiplying the ratios take out the zero clause?

For instance, 1/118 = 0.008 ROUNDED to 0.01 right?

Well, if you add the 14/52 clause like I did above the result is 18%, right? What a coincidence!

P.S. I was just trying to screw with the op.

P.S.S. Wasn't it the Greeks and not the creators of the 10 digit system that decided to multiply the result of ratios by 100? It's all the same to me.

[raaristizbals]

las probabilidades son de 118 a 1 in texas holden...

[eqgh5uea]

^^^ what he said

[Punter4444]

i dont know this one