what are the odds of flopping a flush if you have suited cards?

[jdmBlue]

0.84 %

[eqgh5uea]

Again .... WHAT!!????

First, where did .008 and .01 come from

and

Second, .008/.01 = .8

but, don't really know the pt of this thread, what does it matter

I'm just being an idiot. Does multiplying the ratios take out the zero clause?

For instance, 1/118 = 0.008 ROUNDED to 0.01 right?

Well, if you add the 14/52 clause like I did above the result is 18%, right? What a coincidence!

P.S. I was just trying to screw with the op.

P.S.S. Wasn't it the Greeks and not the creators of the 10 digit system that decided to multiply the result of ratios by 100? It's all the same to me.